If $f:\mathbb{R}\rightarrow \mathbb{R}$ is a differentiable function satisfying the conditions $|f'(x)|\leq |f(x)|$ and $f(0)=0$ then show that $f(x)=0$ for all $x\in \mathbb{R}.$ This we have to prove using Mean Value Theorem only.
My approach: For arbitrary $x\neq0$ by MVT $$\frac{f(x)-f(0)}{x-0}=f'(c)$$ for some $c\in(0,x)$ or $(x,0)$ which implies $f(x)=xf'(c).$ Now, differentiating last equation both sides w.r.t $x$ we get $f'(x)=f'(c)$ yielding $$f'(x)=\frac{f(x)}{x}$$ By condition $|f'(x)|\leq |f(x)|$ we get $$\Big|\frac{f(x)}{x}\Big|\leq|f(x)| \implies |f(x)|(1-|x|)\leq0\implies|f(x)|\geq0\quad or\quad (1-|x|)\leq0\\\implies|f(x)|\geq0\quad or\quad x\notin(-1,1)$$ where the possibility $x\notin(-1,1)$ can't hold since $x$ is arbitrary non-zero real number. There fore we are only left with $|f(x)|\geq0$. After it I can't think more. Kindly HELP. Thank you!