\begin{equation} a_n = \frac{1}{n(\log n)^p(\log \log n)^q}, \text{where } p,q \ge 0. \end{equation} Does $\sum_{n=2}^\infty a_n$ converge? Should I use Bertrand's method?
Whether this series converge or not.
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0The series should start at $n=3.$ Otherwise you have $\ln( \ln 2)<0$ and you have trouble with the $q$th power. – 2017-01-21
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0My mistake, lol. – 2017-01-22
2 Answers
From Cauchy's Condensation test the the series $\sum_{n=2}^\infty \frac{1}{n(\log(n))^p(\log(\log(n)))^q}$ converges or diverges if and only if the condensed series, given by
$$\sum_{n=2}^\infty \frac{2^n}{(2^n)\,(\log(2^n))^p(\log(\log(2^n))^q}=\frac{1}{\log^p(2)}\sum_{n=2}^\infty \frac{1}{n^p(\log(n\log(2))^q} \tag 1$$
converges or diverges.
Now, using Bertrand's Methodology, we see that the series on the right-hand side of $(1)$ diverges for $p<1$, converges for $p>1$, and for $p=1$ the series converges for $q>1$ and diverges otherwise.
Alternatively, by enforcing the substitution $x=e^t$, we can see that
$$\int_2^\infty \frac{1}{x(\log(x))^p(\log(\log(x)))^q}\,dx=\int_{\log(2)}^\infty \frac{1}{t^p\log^q(t)}\,dt$$
which converges for $p>1$, diverges for $p<1$, and for $p=1$, converges for $q>1$ and diverges otherwise, which agrees with the previous result.
I assume you mean:
When does $\sum a_n$ converges regarding $p$ and $q$?
Hint
Use a comparaison to an integral to evaluate the convergence.
(This is indeed similar to Bertrand's method)
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0Can you say a little more? – 2017-01-21
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0@S.Bryant Look closely at the proof for Bertrand's method, and try to adapt it in your case :) – 2017-01-21