Note: I read something about this on the internet somewhere once, my logic could be 100% flawed.
Is $(\aleph_0)^{\infty} = \infty^{\infty}$?
Suppose the number $\infty^{\infty}$. Assuming $\infty$ in this sense has a cardinality of $\aleph_0$, could it be represented as $(\aleph_0)^{\infty}$?
As an extension, because $\aleph_0$ has a cardinality in it's set (some sort of countable infinities), is $(\aleph_0)^n = \aleph_0$?
It seems to be that $\infty^{\infty} > \infty$, and by extension, $\infty^{\infty} > \aleph_0$, but at the same time, if $\aleph_0$ is the $1$ of it's own set, $(\aleph_0)^\infty = \aleph_0$ the same way $1^1 = 1$.