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Is $$n \ge 2 \Leftrightarrow n \in \mathbb{N} \backslash \{1\}?$$

This is in a scenario where $n \in \mathbb{N}$ is already implied.

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    That depends on whether you think $0 \in \mathbb{N}$. Most times I see it, $0$ is not included. But some people take $\mathbb{N}$ to include $0$.2017-01-20
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    @BrianTung yeah, assuming $0 \notin \mathbb{N}. $2017-01-20
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    This seems to be a trivial question: what are your doubts about this fact? What do you think?2017-01-20
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    My experience has been the reverse: most times I see $\mathbb{N}$ it includes 0. But then I work in algebra where it's convenient to use this as notation for the obvious additive monoid.2017-01-20
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    @Crostul just wasn't very sure, I'm not a very confident mathematician, hehe.2017-01-20

1 Answers 1

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You can prove one implication at time.

If $n\in\Bbb N$ such that $n\geq 2$, then $n\neq 1$ which implies that $n\in\Bbb N\setminus\{1\}$.

To prove the other direction, we will use contrapositive. Let $n\in\Bbb N$ such that $n<2$. But there is only one natural $n$ smaller than $2$: $n = 1$. This means that $n\not\in\Bbb N\setminus\{1\}$.

We conclude that for $n\in\Bbb N$, $n\geq 2$ if and only if $n\in\Bbb N\setminus\{1\}$.

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    This answer assumes that $0\not\in\Bbb N$.2017-01-20
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    Cheers, much appreciated.2017-01-20