With the usual notation of distribution theory, let $(\phi_j)_{j=1}^{\infty}$ be a sequence in $\mathscr{D}(\mathbb{R}^n)$ such that for every $T \in \mathscr{D'}(\mathbb{R}^n)$, we have $T(\phi_j) \rightarrow 0$ (which is to say that $\phi_j \rightarrow 0$ in the weak topology of $\mathscr{D}(\mathbb{R}^n)$). Does we have $\phi_j \rightarrow 0$ in the original topology of $\mathscr{D}(\mathbb{R}^n)$?
Analogously, let $(\phi_j)_{j=1}^{\infty}$ be a sequence in $\mathscr{S}(\mathbb{R}^n)$ such that for every $T \in \mathscr{S'}(\mathbb{R}^n)$, we have $T(\phi_j) \rightarrow 0$ (which is to say that $\phi_j \rightarrow 0$ in the weak topology of $\mathscr{S}(\mathbb{R}^n)$). Does we have $\phi_j \rightarrow 0$ in the original topology of $\mathscr{S}(\mathbb{R}^n)$?
I think the answers to these two questions are negative, but I could not find any counter-example.
Thank you very much for your attention.