It's true that $g(x)\geq p^2$ happens at at least $t$ points. Suppose $f(k)=0$ except at the $t$ points that fall in a set $S$, and that $\forall s\in S, g(s)\geq p$.
$$g(k)=\sum_{s\in S}f(s)f(k-s)$$ holds by restricting to the terms where the $f(k)$ piece of the product is non-zero. For $g(k)$ to be non-zero, it would have to be that $\exists s$ such that $k-s\in S$. How many ways this could happen depends on the set $S$. If we have a function $h(x)$ that is a lower bound on the number of $s$ for which $x-s\in S$, then we can conclude that $g(x)\geq h(x)p^2$.
We see that there are at least $t$ values for which $h(x)>0$ by writing $S=\{s_1,s_2,\ldots, s_t\}$ where $i< j\Rightarrow s_i
We can see that this is sharp at $t=1$ by taking $S=\{0\}$ and $f(0)=p$ and $f(x)=0$ for $x>0$. Then $g(0)=p^2$ and $g(x)=0$ for $x>0$.