This is part of the proof in the construction of arbitrary product space of probability spaces given in Bauer's Probability Theory.
Let $J_k$ be a nonempty finite index subset of an arbitrary index set $I$, and $J_k \subset J_{k+1}$ for all $k\in \mathbb{N}$. Let $p_{J_k}^{J_{k+1}}$ be the projection of a point in the product space of $J_{k+1}$ sets onto $J_k$ sets. And for each $w_{J_k}\in \Omega_{J_k}$ we have $p_{J_k}^{J_{k+1}}(w_{J_{k+1}})=w_{J_k}.$ Then this property ensures that there exists an $w_0\in \Omega= \otimes_{i \in I} \Omega_i$ with $p_{J_k} (w_0)=w_{J_k}$ for every $k \in \mathbb{N}$.
How can we get this $w_0$ from $p_{J_k}^{J_{k+1}}(w_{J_{k+1}})=w_{J_k}$? I can use $p_{J_k}=p_{J_k}^{J_{k+1}} \circ p_{J_{k+1}}$, to inductively come up with $p_{J_k} (w_k, w')=w_{J_k}$ where $w'=(w_{k+1}, w'')$ for some $w'' \in \otimes_{i \in I-{J_{k+1}}}\Omega_i$ but when the index set $I$ is infinite, I don't know how to construct such a $w_0$ which has the desired property for every $k$.
I would greatly appreciate any help. Below is the excerpt from the text.
