I was trying to prove the following inequality:
Take an arbitrary $p\in\mathbb{N}$, then
$\forall\varepsilon>0\,\forall{}a,b\in\mathbb{R}_{+}\exists{}C_{\varepsilon}>0\,:\,(a+b)^p\leq{}(1+\varepsilon)a^p\,+\,C_{\varepsilon}b^p$
This looks an awful lot like young's inequality to me, but I couldn't quite figure out how to find an analogy between the two that could help.
I've also considered proving this via induction, but for $b\leq{}a$ it doesn't seem to work. I'd greatly appreciate any tips or suggestions.
Thanks a lot.