Real analytic functions are just special cases of complex analytic functions, so we can use the full power of complex analysis to create a counter-example. A quintessential example is
$$ f(x) = \frac{1}{1+x^2}. $$
This function is real-analytic. However, for any $x_0 \in \Bbb{R}$, the radius of convergence of the power series
$$ \sum_{n=0}^{\infty} \frac{f^{(n)}(x_0)}{n!} (x-x_0)^n \tag{*} $$
is exactly $R = \sqrt{\smash[b]{x_0^2} + 1}$ since the nearest singularities are $\pm i$. This tells that there exists no $x_0$ with which $\text{(*)}$ converges for all $\Bbb{R}$. (In fact, if such $x_0$ exists then all $x_0 \in \Bbb{R}$ should work as well, thus it is enough to check the failure at $x_0 = 0$.)
We can even explicitly compute that
$$ \frac{f^{(n)}(x_0)}{n!} = \frac{(-1)^n}{R^{n+1}} \sin((n+1)\operatorname{arccos}(x_0/R)),$$
from which we also confirm that the radius of convergence of $\text{(*)}$ is $R$.