let $A = \left( \begin{array}{} 1 & 0 & 3 \\ 0 & 1 & 2 \\ 0 & 0 & 1 \end{array} \right)$
$A$ has one eigenvalue $\lambda=1$ with algebraic multiplicity $3$ but it has only two linearly independent eigenvectors $\left( \begin{array}{} 1 \\ 0 \\ 0 \end{array} \right),\left( \begin{array}{} 0 \\ 1 \\ 0 \end{array} \right)$(this can be easily checked since $A-\lambda I=A-I=\left( \begin{array}{} 0 & 0 & 3 \\ 0 & 0 & 2 \\ 0 & 0 & 0 \end{array} \right)$ and both vectors are in $ker(A-I)$), so the geometric multiplicity is $2$ which is less than 3, the algebraic multiplicity.
and from here, I was told that I need to compute something like $(A-I)w=v$ to find $w$ where $v$ is the eigenvector. but I have two $v$'s, so I don't know which $v$ I should take.
and as I put $A$ in the Wolfram Alpha, I found its Jordan decomposition and there was no $\left( \begin{array}{} 1 \\ 0 \\ 0 \end{array} \right)$ in the column of $S$, such that $A=SJS^{-1}$, where $J$ is the Jordan form.
exactly how to find $S$? I'm so confused.