I would like to proof that $F_X(x)\to0$ as $x\to -\infty$, where $F_X$ is a distribution functions of a random variable X. I started my proof as follows:
We know that $F_X(x)=\mathbb P(X\leq x)$. If we can show that $\lim_{n\to \infty}F_X(x_n)=1$ for each sequence $(x_n) \text{ in } \mathbb R$ with limit $- \infty$, then we've proven that $\lim_{x\to \infty}F_X(x)=1$. Let $x_1\leq x_2\leq \dots$ and let $\lim_{n\to \infty}(x_n)=-\infty$. Then we know that $\{X\leq x_1\}\supseteq \{X\leq x_2\}\supseteq \dots$, which is a decreasing sequence of events in $\mathcal F$. By the continuity of $\mathbb P$, we can state that for $A=\cap_{i=1}^{\infty}\{X\leq x_i\}$:
$\mathbb P(A)=\lim_{n\to \infty}\mathbb P(\{X\leq x_n\})$.
It is easily showable that $\mathbb P(A)=0$, because $A=\emptyset$ (assume not, and you get a contradiction). However, my issue with my own proof is that I considered a decreasing sequence $(x_n)$, while the definition of limits of functions states that any $(x_n)$ with limit $-\infty$ should work...
So either my proof is dysfunctional, or my reasoning can be extended to a more general one. Could someone help me out? Thanks in advance.