I started the proof, but couldn't figure out where to go... here is my attempt:
Take $S, T \in B(X)$, the space of operators from $X$ to $X$, such that $ST(x) = TS(x)$ for all $x \in X$. Then take $y \in \ker(T)$ so that $T(y) = 0$. Then, $S(T(y)) = S(0)$. However, since $T$ and $S$ commute we have that $$T(S(y)) = S(T(y)) = S(0)$$ as well.
I might be missing something foundational here, but $S(0)$ doesn't necessarily have to equal $0$ as an operator?
Then, as far as the closure of the image space of $T$, I'm not really sure either. Thank you.