So I'm getting confused because for $z \in \mathbb{C}$ we have $$\cos(z) = \frac{e^z+e^{-z}}{2} \,\,\, \text{and} \,\,\,\,\ \sin(z) = \frac{e^z-e^{-z}}{2i}$$ where $z = x+iy$ with $x,y \in \mathbb{R}$.
However we know that $\cos(iz) = \cosh(z)$ and $\sin(iz) = i\sinh(z)$ for $z\in\mathbb{C}$ right?
But the definition of the hyperbolic functions is given as $$\cosh(x) = \frac{e^{x}+e^{-x}}{2}\,\,\,\, \text{and} \,\,\,\, \sinh(x) = \frac{e^{x}-e^{-x}}{2i}$$ but this looks exactly the same as the trigonometric functions.
So my question is
Since I couldn't find it on Wikipedia, is $x \in \mathbb{R}$ instead of $x\in\mathbb{C}$ when we are giving the definition of the hyperbolic functions? (sorry for the dummy $x$ in $z = x+iy$ and here)
So fundamentally, can we say that the "only" difference in the definition of the trigonometric functions and the hyperbolic is that the argument (or the exponential) of the hyperbolic functions is real, whereas the argument of the exponentials for the trigonometric ones is complex?
Edit
can we say that $\cos(x) = \frac{e^{ix}+e^{-ix}}{2}$ for $x\in \mathbb{R}$, but also $\cos(z) = \cos(x+iy) = \frac{e^{i(x+iy)}+e^{-i(x+iy)}}{2} = \frac{e^{ix-y}+e^{-ix+y}}{2} =\frac{e^{-y}e^{ix}+e^{y}e^{-ix}}{2} $ ?