Your proof for $k=2$ looks good, and the general case can be proved in a similar way using induction on $k$: the base case is $k=2$, which you have already proved.
Now suppose that $k>2$, and $f^jv=0$ implies that $fv=0$ for all $2\leq j\leq k-1$, and suppose that $f^kv=0$.
If $k=2l$ is even then we have
$$ 0=\langle f^{2l}v,v\rangle=\langle f^lv,f^lv\rangle $$
Therefore $f^lv=0$, and by the induction hypothesis it follows that $fv=0$.
Finally, if $k=2l+1$ is odd then $f^kv=0$ implies that $f^{k+1}v=0$, and since $k+1$ is even we can apply the same argument as above to conclude that $fv=0$.