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Can you give me an example which shows well the difference between them?

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We have the theorem: let be $[K,k]<\infty $ then the following is equivalent:

$1)$ $K$ is normal extension

$2)$ $K$ is splitting field over $k$ for some $f(x)\in k[x]$.

but we know that if $\bar k$ is algebraically closed field of $k$ then $\bar k$ is normal extension of $k$ but $\bar k$ isnot splitting field of $k$.

for example: if $f(x)=x^2+1 \in \mathbb Q[x] $ then $\mathbb Q(i)$ is spilitting field of $f(x)$ and $\mathbb Q(i)$ is normal extension of $\mathbb Q$. on other hand we have $\bar{\mathbb Q}$ is normal extension but not spilitting field.

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    Could you check this link http://math.stackexchange.com/questions/198635/splitting-field-of-a-family-of-polynomials/198661#1986612017-01-20
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    Also, every algebraic closure of a field $F$ is a splitting field over $F$.2017-01-20