There was a lot of confusion in the past few posts on this question and so I hope to simplify things and try to make it more clear.
Question - Let $X$ be the set with only one element, zero. Given the binary operations $0+0=0$ and $0\cdot 0=0$. Let $X^+$ be the empty set.
So using my class's Integer Axiom definitions there were a few aspects of this question that have me confused:
Using the binary operation $\cdot$, is it possible to have the identity element equal to $1$?
I think not as $e \cdot 0 = 0 \cdot e = 0$.
Given the subset $X^+$ does it follow the following property?
There is a subset $Z^+$ called the positive integers and it satisfies the following: for every $a \in Z$, exactly one of the following holds:
$a$ is in $Z^+$, $-a$ is in $Z^+$, or $a = 0$.
If I am looking at this correctly, this property does work as the empty set contains no elements and only $a = 0$ is true?
All help is greatly appreciated.
Thanks!