Hi I have a doubt that I think is pretty stupid.
I am reading a book and at some point there is an example about computing a flow of 2 vector fields which says.
Set $\begin{equation}f_1(x)=\left(\begin{matrix} \exp(x_2) \\ 1 \end{matrix}\right)\end{equation}$ , $\begin{equation}f_2(x)=\left(\begin{matrix} 1 \\ 0 \end{matrix}\right)\end{equation}$.
The calculation of the flows of $f_1, f_2$ is easy.
For $f_1$ since:
$\dot{x}_1 = \exp(x_2) \\ \dot{x}_2 = 1$
is solved by
$x_1(t) = \exp(x_2^o)(\exp(t)-1) + x_1^o \\ x_2(t) = t+x_2^o$
(the question: How do I get this result? Just by integrating the $\dot{x_1}, \dot{x_2}$? I don't get it sorry)
from that we have
$\Phi_{z_1}^{f_1}(x) = \left(\begin{matrix} \exp(x_2)(\exp(z_1)-1)+x_1\\ z_1+x_2\end{matrix}\right)$
And this is clear to me, you just neet to put $(x_1^o,x_2^o)=(x_1,x_2)$ and $t=z_1$.
Then it computes, more or less in the same way the: $\Phi_{z_2}^{f_2}(x)$
Thanks a lot for the help.