If $a_n$ is a sequence of real numbers, then I know the following result:
If $\underset{n\to\infty}{\lim} a_{n}$ exist then $$\lim_{n\rightarrow\infty} a_{2n} \quad \text{and} \quad \lim_{n\to\infty} a_{2n-1} \quad \text{and} \quad \lim_{n\rightarrow\infty} a_{3n}$$ exist and equal. Now what can I say about the converse? i.e.
if I know that $$\lim_{n\rightarrow\infty} a_{2n} \quad \text{and} \quad \lim_{n\to\infty} a_{2n-1} \quad \text{and} \quad \lim_{n\rightarrow\infty} a_{3n}$$ exist, what can i say about $\underset{n\to\infty}{\lim} a_{n}$?