It is assumed that $f(x+y)=f(x)f(y)$ for all $x,y\in\mathbb{R}$.
So you can choose, as a particular case, $x=0$ and $y=0$.
Then you get : $f(0) = f(0)^2$, that is $f(0)\left(1-f(0)\right)=0$.
Since it is assumed that $f(0)\neq0$, then you can divide both sides of the last equality by $f(0)$, and you get $1-f(0)=0$. Finally $f(0)=1$.
Note also that, knowing that, you can now choose $y=-x$ and get $f(0)=f(x)f(-x)$, so that :
$$\forall x\in\mathbb{R},\,f(-x)=\frac{1}{f(x)}$$
I suggest that, starting from that point you try to see what else can be derived concerning $f$ ...