In Stein's "Complex analysis" he uses in the proof of the reflection formula (p. 164 in https://www.fing.edu.uy/~cerminar/Complex_Analysis.pdf ) the following equality:
For $0 we have $$\frac{\pi}{\sin \pi(1-s)}=\frac{\pi}{\sin\pi s}.$$
How can this be true? We have $\sin(\pi (1-s))=\sin(-\pi s)=-\sin(\pi s)$.
If this equation holds for $0 then it should on all of $\mathbb{R}$. How is this not a contradiction?
Where am I wrong ? Or is it the textbook?