My question here is whether the point I make is sufficient to make the proof work, and in general whether relying on this kind of argument is ok.
The property $P(n)$ we're doing induction on is that $2n+1 < 2^n$ for all integers $n \geq 3$.
Base case $k=3$, $7 < 8$ works.
Now, we say assume $P(k)$ holds for some arbitrary integer $k \geq 3$, we'll show that it also holds for $P(k+1)$. In other words, we want to prove the implication $P(k) \rightarrow P(k+1)$.
$$2(k+1)+1 < 2^{k+1}$$ $$2(k+1) + 1 < 2 \cdot 2^k$$ $$k+1 + \frac{1}{2} < 2^k$$
But now, since $k$ is necessarily $\geq3$, we know that (this is the part I'm not sure about) $$k+1+\frac{1}{2} < 2k+1$$ and by induction hypothesis $$2k+1 < 2^k$$ therefore $$k+1+\frac{1}{2} < 2^k$$ and $$2(k+1)+1 < 2^{k+1}$$