Let $D:=\{z\in \mathbb{C}: \lvert z \rvert < 1\}$ and $B := \{z\in \mathbb{C}: \lvert z \rvert = 1\}$. Let $f:D\to \mathbb{C}$ be a uniformly continuous function. Then $\lim\limits_{z\to z_0, z\in D} f(z)$ exists for all $z_0\in B$.
I'm not sure how to approach this problem. Here's my guess: since points in $B$ are limit points of $D$, $\exists$ a sequence $\{z_n\}$ converging to $z_0 \in B$, for any $z_0\in B$. Now, since $f$ is continuous, $\lim\limits_{n\to \infty} f(z_n) = \lim\limits_{z\to z_0, z\in D} f(z)$ must exist. But if the proof were this straightforward, one could do away with simple continuity, but in this case uniform continuity is implied. So I think that I'm missing something.