I'm trying to integrate $\int r(\ln r)^2\, dr$.
I let $u=\ln r$ and $du=\dfrac 1 r \, dr$. So then I get, $\displaystyle\int \dfrac{ru^2} r \, du = \int u^2 \, du = \dfrac 1 3 (u)^3+C$$$=\frac 1 3 (\ln r)^3 +C$$
Now wolfram alpha does the problem via integration by parts and gives the answer, $$\dfrac{1}{4}r^2(2\log^2(r)-2\log(r)+1)+C$$
I'm struggling to understand why I can't use substitution to solve the integral.
Thanks.