A solution (similar in spirit to that of the book cited in reference, although found before looking at it).
(i) Since the assumption that $(u_n)_n$ be bounded seems to play a major role given the statement, a natural idea is to check what we know about bounded real sequences. Well, two related things:
- any bounded real sequence has a convergent subsequence;
- if a bounded real sequence only has one adherence value, then it converges to that value.
So let us prove that $(u_n)_n$ has a unique adherence value (limit point). To do so, first let us denote by $\ell$ the limit guaranteed by assumption, that is
$$\ell \stackrel{\rm def}{=} \lim_{n\to \infty} u_n + \frac{u_{2n}}{2}\tag{1}.$$
Now, let $\ell_0$ be any limit point of $(u_n)_n$ (by the above bullet points, we know there is at least one), and $\varphi\colon\mathbb{N}\to\mathbb{N}$ be an increasing function define a corresponding subsequence: $$\lim_{n\to \infty} u_{\varphi(n)} = \ell_0.\tag{2}$$
From (1) and (2), we immediately get that
$$
u_{2\varphi(n)} = 2\left(u_{\varphi(n)}+\frac{u_{2\varphi(n)}}{2}\right) - 2u_{\varphi(n)} \xrightarrow[n\to\infty]{} 2\left(\ell-\ell_0\right)
$$
and therefore $\ell_1\stackrel{\rm def}{=} -2\ell_0+2\ell$ is also a limit point of $(u_n)_n$. But we can repeat the above:and the sequence of values $(\ell_k)_{k\geq 0}$ defined by
$$
\ell_{k+1} = -2\ell_k+2\ell \tag{3}
$$
is a sequence of limit points of $(u_n)_n$. Solving the linear recurrence (e.g., writing $\ell_{k+1}-\frac{2}{3}\ell = -2(\ell_k-\frac{2}{3}\ell)$ to get a geometric series), we get $$\ell_k = (-2)^k\left(\ell_0-\frac{2}{3}\ell\right)+\frac{2}{3}\ell\tag{4}$$
for every $k\geq 0$. But this sequence of limit points has to be bounded, since the sequence $(u_n)_n$ is: this is only possible if $\ell_0-\frac{2}{3}\ell=0$.
Therefore, $(u_n)_n$ has a unique adherence value, namely $\frac{2}{3}\ell$ — and thus converges to this value. $\square$
(ii) Now, without the assumption that $(u_n)_n$ be bounded, the argument above breaks in two places: and indeed the counterexample given by Daniel Fischer shows that this is not only an artifact of the proof, but that the conclusion does not hold.
A way to get to such a counterexample would be to start with a natural simplification: let us impose that
$$
u_n + \frac{u_{2n}}{2} \xrightarrow[n\to\infty]{} 0
$$
and even more stringent that $u_n + \frac{u_{2n}}{2} = 0$ for all $n\geq 0$. (Clearly, this implies the limit, and the least freedom we have, the simpler it is to get or fail to get a counterexample).
Reorganizing, we see that this implies $u_{2n} = -2 u_n$ for all $n\geq 0$, which naturally leads to set
$$
u_n \stackrel{\rm def}{=} \begin{cases}
(-2)^k u_0 &\text{ if } n=2^k\text{ for some }k\geq 0\\
0 &\text{ otherwise.}
\end{cases}
$$