Consider the following:
$\gamma=\dfrac{1}{4Y}\log_{\beta}\dfrac{\int_{\mathbb{R}^{n}}\exp(-a\eta||\theta||_1-\eta\theta^{\top}(\sum_{t=1}^Tx_tx_t^{\top})\theta+2\eta\sum_{t=1}^{T-1}(y_tx_t^{\top}-Yx_T^{\top})\theta) \mathrm d\theta}{\int_{\mathbb{R}^{n}}\exp(-a\eta||\theta||_1-\eta\theta^{\top}(\sum_{t=1}^Tx_tx_t^{\top})\theta+2\eta\sum_{t=1}^{T-1}(y_tx_t^{\top}+Yx_T^{\top})\theta)\mathrm d\theta}\;\;\;(1)$
where $\beta=e^{-\eta}$, for $||\theta||_2^2$, solution is:
$\gamma = \dfrac{1}{4Y}\log_{\beta}\dfrac{\int_{\mathbb{R}^{n}}\exp(-a\eta\theta^{\top}(aI+\sum_{t=1}^Tx_tx_t^{\top})\theta+2\eta\sum_{t=1}^{T-1}(y_tx_t^{\top}-Yx_T^{\top})\theta)\mathrm d\theta}{\int_{\mathbb{R}^{n}}\exp(-a\eta\theta^{\top}(aI+\sum_{t=1}^Tx_tx_t^{\top})\theta+2\eta\sum_{t=1}^{T-1}(y_tx_t^{\top}+Yx_T^{\top})\theta)\mathrm d\theta}$
By using Harville, 1997, Theorem 19.1.1 which is as follows:
$F(A,b,x)=\inf_{\theta\in\mathbb{R}^n}(\theta^{\top}A\theta+b^\top\theta+x^\top\theta)-\inf_{\theta\in\mathbb{R}^n}(\theta^{\top}A\theta+b^\top\theta-x^\top\theta)$
$=-0.25(b+x)^\top A^{-1}(b+x)+0.25(b-x)^{\top} A^{-1}(b-x)=-b^\top A^{-1}x$
$A$ is a positive definite $n\times n$ matrix. $b$ and $x$ are vectors.
we can write
$\gamma=\frac{1}{4Y}\log_{\beta}e^{-\eta F(aI+\sum_{t=1}^Tx_tx_t^{\top},-2\sum_{t=1}^{T-1}y_tx_t^{\top},2Yx_T^{\top})}$
$=\frac{1}{4Y}F(aI+\sum_{t=1}^Tx_tx_t^{\top},-2\sum_{t=1}^{T-1}y_tx_t^{\top},2Yx_T^{\top})$
$=(\sum_{t=1}^{T-1}y_tx_t^{\top})(aI+\sum_{t=1}^Tx_tx_t^{\top})^{-1} x_T\;\;\;(2)$
$a >,\eta >0$, all the rest are vectors. $(2)$ is representation of ridge regression in dual form.
Is it possible for someone to clarify me if one can evaluate $(1)$ analytically?I am hoping to get LASSO in dual form, one can suggest the changes required in $(1)$ to obtain LASSO.
Notes
Maybe $(1)$, can be solved by writing it as:
$\gamma=\frac{1}{4Y}\log_{\beta}e^{-\eta F(\sum_{t=1}^Tx_tx_t^{\top},-2\sum_{t=1}^{T-1}y_tx_t^{\top},2Yx_T^{\top})}\dfrac{\int_{\mathbb{R}}e^{-\eta a ||\theta||_1}\mathrm d\theta}{\int_{\mathbb{R}}e^{-\eta a ||\theta||_1}\mathrm d\theta}$
applying Fubini's theorem can we solve it?
(Fubini's theorem does not seem like the right choice here. Also not sure if one can write the integral in such a way)
Main Problem
Following is the main issue:
$F(A,b,x,c)=\inf_{\theta\in\mathbb{R}^n}(\theta^{\top}A\theta+b^\top\theta+x^\top\theta+c||\theta||_1)-\inf_{\theta\in\mathbb{R}^n}(\theta^{\top}A\theta+b^\top\theta-x^\top\theta+c||\theta||_1)=?$
$x,b,\theta\in\mathbb{R}^n$ i.e. are vectors, $c>0$ scalar. $A$ is a positive definite matrix. $||\theta||_1=\sum_{r=1}^n |\theta_r|$. In order to solve the above one may require to use something like subdifferential since absolute values are not differentiable.
Link to Above explanation
$\int_{\mathbb{R}^n}e^{-f(\theta)\mathrm d\theta}=e^{f_0}\frac{\pi^{n/2}}{\sqrt{\det A}}$
where $f_0=\min_{\theta\in\mathbb{R}^n} f(\theta)$. So if I can find $f_0$, I know that $\beta=e^{-\eta}$ and I have $\log_{\beta}$, which will cancel.