I have a question about the following statement. I saw this in this paper but the proof in this paper seems somewhat unreasonable to me. So I tried to give more rigorous proof, but I have no idea to prove this statement.
The paper is:
In this paper, there is a lemma which says:
Suppose $f: \mathbb{R}^n \rightarrow \mathbb{R}^m$ is Lipschitz continuous with constant $L$. Let $F(x) = Df(x) f(x)$. (The author assumes that $f$ is differentiable, without loss of generality. He mentioned that Lipschitz continuous is differentiable almost everywhere, but I can't understand why this assumption is still valid.) Then $F$ is Lipschitz continuous with constant $L^2$.
edited: $f$ is a differentiable function.
I tried to use the fact that the norm of $Df(x)$ is bounded by $L$. (I think that the proof of Rademacher's theorem verifies this.)
Can anyone give me a hint about the proof or help me understand the proof of this lemma given in the paper?
This is my first question in this community, so any suggestions about the format of my question are also welcome.
Thank you.