Consider the holomorphic functions $f_1 \in H(\Omega_1)$ and $f_2 \in H(\Omega_2)$, where $\Omega_1, \Omega_2 \subset \mathbb{C}$ and $f_1(\Omega_1) \subset \Omega_2$. Let $$g = f_2 \circ f_1.$$
Consider $z_0 \in \Omega_1$ and $z'_0 = f_1(z_0) \in \Omega_2$.
Suppose $z'_0$ is a zero of order $k$ for $f_2$. Is $z_0$ a zero of order $k$ for $g$? If not what is it? Do we need to deal with the case where the derivatives of $f_1$ vanish separately?