Since $$(n+1)(n+2)...(an)=\frac{(an)!}{n!}$$
According to Legendre's Theorem
$n!=2^{n-r_1}\cdot q_1$ where $r_1$-the number of $1$'s in binary expansion of $n$ and similarly $(an)!=2^{an-r_2}\cdot q_2$ and
$$\frac{(an)!}{n!}=\frac{q_2}{q_1}\cdot 2^{n(a-1)-r_2+r_1}$$
It is known (and not difficult to show) that multiplication by $2$ "shifts" the bits to the left, e.g. $(3)_{10}=(11)_2 \Rightarrow (2\cdot 3)_{10}=(110)_2$. Multiplying by $2^r$ shifts the bits $r$ times so that if $a=2^r$ then $an$ and $n$ will have the same number of $1$'s in binary representation, or $r_1=r_2$.
Re the contradiction, we don't want to have $r_1 > r_2$. But, let's assume $n=(11)_{10}=(1011)_2$ and $a=3$ then $an=(33)_{10}=(100001)_2$.
$$11!=2^{11-3}\cdot 155925$$
$$33!=2^{33-2}\cdot 4043484860477916195764296875$$
or
$$2^{11(3-1)+1} | 217535414131691079834009600000=\frac{33!}{11!}$$
This is an example of $r_1 > r_2$.
Update
Few more examples:
Basically, looking at $an=2^{2k+1}+1$ (which always has 2 of $1$'s in its binary representation and is always divisible by $3$) will always yield infinite examples. This is easy to check, basically $2 \equiv -1 \pmod{3} \Rightarrow 2^{2k+1} \equiv (-1)^{2k+1} \equiv -1 \pmod{3}$, so
$$an=2^{2k+1}+1=3\cdot n$$
$n$ will always (except a few exceptions) have more than $2$ of $1$'s in its binary representation, because:
- if $n$ has $1$ of $1$'s in its binary representation, then $n=2^t$, which will lead to $2 | 1$ contradiction, except the $t=0$ case or $2^1+1=3$.
- if $n$ has $2$ of $1$'s in its binary representation, then $n=2^t+2^z, t>z\geq0$. If $z>0$ then $2 | 1$ - contradiction. If $z=0$ then $2^{2k+1}+1=3\cdot (2^t+1)\Rightarrow 2^{2k}-3\cdot 2^{t-1}=1$. It $t>1$ then we have the same $2|1$ contradiction, thus $t=1$ and $2^{2k}=4$ or $k=1$ leading to $2^3+1=3\cdot 3$.
To conclude, apart for the two examples outlined above, $n$ will always have $\geq 3$ of $1$'s in its binary representation, while $an$ only $2$.