As part of a larger proof, I need to use the fact that for a homomorphism $\phi : A \rightarrow B$, where $A$ is cyclic and $a \in A$ its generator, $\phi(a^{-n}) = \phi(a^n)^{-1}$. All I came up with is that $\phi(a^{-n}) = \phi((a^n)^{-1})$ and then I hit a wall. Is it true in general that $\phi(a^{nm}) = \phi(a^n)^m$, even for $m < 0$?
I'm also not sure if it's important that $A$ is cyclic and $a$ is its generator.
Thanks in advance for any help.