I'm reading Stahl's: Geometry from Euclid to Knots. In the first part of the text, he argues that
$$\cos (A )=\frac{\cos (a)-\cos(b)\cos(c)}{\sin(b)\sin(c)}$$
and $\alpha$ an spherical angle. But by taking the $\cos \theta= \cfrac{a}{h}$ from plane geometry, and looking at:
$\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad$
My first guess would be to define the spherical cosine as $\cos(A)=\cfrac{b}{a}$ or $\cos(A)=\cfrac{c}{a}$ or perhaps they are defined this way in disguise and the formula for the spherical cosine actually is the suggestion I made? I guess that the definition for spherical cosine should mimic the definition for the plane cosine in some sense, but I don't see what exactly it is mimicking in this case.
Also, Stahl says that this is the cosine laws, not exactly the cosine. I looked at another pages: Wikipedia, Mathworld. And it seems that people derive the cosine laws and then, the cosine appears as a consequence. I guess in plane geometry it is the other way around but I'm not certain, at least all books I took were this way.
I have found the following here:
Which lines up with what I have written above but given what I wrote for $\sin$ at least, $\cos$ is still a little bit weird. But for $\sin$, I would expect to have $\sin(B)=\cfrac{b}{c}$, but I have $\sin(B)=\cfrac{\sin b}{\sin c}$ instead. Why the second instead of the first? Is it just an arbitrary decision? Is it better to do this way?
