Let$$ f(z) = \left\{ \begin{array}{ll} g(z) & \quad z \neq 0 \\ h(z) & \quad z = 0 \end{array} \right. $$
where $g(z)=U_1+iV_1$ and $h(z)=U_2+iV_2$.
When we are asked to prove that $f(z)$ satisfies Cauchy Riemann equations at $z=0$ does that mean that we need to prove that ${U_1}_x={V_1}_y$ and ${U_1}_y=-{V_1}_x$ or ${U_2}_x={V_2}_y$ and ${U_2}_y=-{V_2}_x$?
If $h(z)=0$ does that mean that $f(z)$ satisfies Cauchy Riemann equations at $z=0$ for any $g(z)$?