I've seen in various books that, in order to prove that a function $f:X\rightarrow Y$ is continuous, it is sufficient to show that the pre-images $f^{-1}(V)$ of all sets $V$ of a certain basis of the topology in $Y$ are open (in $X$). This is clear to me and easy enough to prove.
I would say that the reciprocal is also true. i.e. $f$ is continuous iff $\forall \, V\in \beta_Y,\,f^{-1}(V)\in T_X$ (with $\beta_Y$ a basis of $Y$ and $T_X$ the topology on $X$). This comes simply from the fact that all the elements of the basis $\beta_Y$ are elements of the topology $T_Y$.
Now, I've also seen that in order to prove that a function $f:X\rightarrow Y$ is continuous, it is sufficient to show that the pre-images $f^{-1}(V)$ of all sets $V$ of a subbasis of the topology $T_Y$ are open (in $X$). This is also clear.
My question: is the reciprocal of this last statement true, like in the basis case? i.e. is it true that $f$ is continuous iff $\forall \, V\in \gamma_Y,\,f^{-1}(V)\in T_X$ (with $\gamma_Y$ a subbasis of $Y$ and $T_X$ the topology on $X$)? My intuition tells me that this is false: the elements of the subbasis $\gamma_Y$ are not elements of the topology $T_Y$, so I don't see any reason for having $\forall \, V\in \gamma_Y,\,f^{-1}(V)\in T_X$ just because $f$ is continuous.