Suppose I know $a_n \to 0$ as $n \to \infty$. How fast can $\Sigma_{n=1}^{\infty}a_nr^n$ blow up as $r \to 1$?
In particular, can I say $(1-r)\Sigma_{n=1}^{\infty}a_nr^n \to 0$? If so, how can I prove it?
Also, is there a generally best way to look at questions of this type. I'm very frustrated because I feel like I should be able to answer this myself, but I don't know how to approach it.