Can anyone see the equality in the red squere is true? It is taken from the supplementary material for this paper.
I am not sure if it is relevant but here, $\phi(x)$ represents the density function (PDF) of normal distribution and $\Phi(x)$ denotes the cumulative normal distribution function (CDF). i.e. $$\Phi(x) = \int_{-\infty}^x \phi(t)dt$$
Thanks!
