Let $A$ and $B$ be subsets of $X$ and $Y$, respectively. I've seen this written in a proof: $$A \times B = X\times Y - ((X-A)\times B \cup A\times(Y-B))$$
I think this is not correct, and I want to confirm it. I think one must have $$A \times B = X\times Y - ((X-A)\times B \cup A\times(Y-B)\cup ((X-A)\times(Y-B)))$$
In fact, in the first case one would have that $(x,y)\in A\times B$ for $x\in (X-A)$ and $y \in (Y-B)$, which is incorrect.