This Wolfram covariance note says that
$$cov(X,Y)=\langle (X-\mu_X)(Y-\mu_y)\rangle$$ $$=\langle X Y\rangle-\mu_x\mu_y$$
However, my deduction doesn't agree with it:
$$\langle (X-\mu_X)(Y-\mu_Y)\rangle=\sum\limits_{i=1}^N\frac{(x_i-\mu_x)(y_i-\mu_y)}{N}$$ $$\langle X Y\rangle-\mu_x\mu_y=\sum\limits_{i=1}^N\frac{x_iy_i-\mu_x\mu_y}{N}$$
From this, obviously the above two equations are not equal.
Is my deduction correct?