I have a few uncertainties on this particular proof: http://planetmath.org/proofofgronwallslemma
Why are we allowed to divide at all in the first step, I think nothing prevents the right hand side form being zero, and assuming neither component is zero it is not trivial from my perspective. Does it make sense to add some $\epsilon > 0 $ before dividing? Does this hold up later on in the proof?
Secondly I do not understand the step where they integrate at all, what happens with the numerator?