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I'm learning about differential equations from YouTube, so bear with me if this is trivial. When we have an exact equation,

$$P(x,y)+\frac{dy}{dx}Q(x,y)=0$$

To solve, we need to find the potential function $F$ with gradient $\langle P, Q \rangle$. Then the solution is $F(x,y)=C$.

My question is why?

  • 2
    Try to compute $\frac{d}{dx} F(x, y(x))$.2017-01-15
  • 1
    It's not "**bare** with me." It's "**bear** with me."2017-01-15
  • 1
    I asked this a while back: http://math.stackexchange.com/questions/1577421/the-connection-between-differential-forms-and-ode2017-01-15

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