I was watching a TED video about the boy/girl paradox and several questions come up and there are several things I dont understand.
Why is there a paradox? In the TED video they say its 1/3 invariabily, But the ODDs for a frog croaking wouldnt be doubled on the Male/Male subgroup? Meaning the correct answer would be 1/2?
Isnt the same with the original boy/girl paradox?
- John Smith have two children, he introduces one of them as a boy. Wich are the odds the other is also a boy?
If he is introducing at random isnt introducing a boy the double the odds in the boy/boy subgroup? [BB; BG; GB; GG] arent the odds: [50;25;25;0]?
Isnt it showing exactly this? When you take the probabilities of the event happening into account, the odds are always 1/2.
Another example: You are playing poker, you have a very good hand with 80% chance of winning. If someone increases the bet, folds or pay, it makes you wonder whether your chances really are higher or lower than 80%.
Now when adding irrelevant information, as in the day of the week boy/girl paradox. I quite dont understand why it changes the probabilities addin irrelevant information, isnt it illogical?
- You pick at random all families with 2 children, with at leat one boy, born on tuesday. The chances of the family consisting of a boy and a girl is 52%.
The same can be said about every other day of the week, it cant? for Monday 52%, Wednesday 52%, Thursday 52%... and so on. If the odds of every day are 52% how can it be 1/2 or even 1/3 if you disconsider the days of the week??
The way I see it is if you have multiple answers for the same problem one of them is wrong.
Cant you just make up information and achieve the same result?