Here is Theorem 4.29 in the book Principles of Mathematical Analysis by Walter Rudin, 3rd edition:
Let $f$ be monotonically increasing on $( a, b )$. Then $f( x+ )$ and $f( x- )$ exist at every point $x$ of $( a, b )$. More precisely, $$ \sup_{ a < t < x } f(t) = f( x- ) \leq f(x) \leq f( x+ ) = \inf_{ x < t < b } f(t).$$ Furthermore, if $a < x < y < b$, then $$ f( x+ ) \leq f( y- ).$$
Rudin further states
Analogous results evidently hold for monotonically decreasing functions.
Now is the following a correct statement of the analogous result?
Let $f$ be monotonically decreasing on $(a, b)$. Then $f(x+)$ and $f(x-)$ exist at every point $x$ of $(a,b)$. More precisely, $$ \inf_{a
If not, then what is the correct statement of the analogue?