This may be a basic calculus question but I just can not understand a point in the following argument:
We have the following equality($d$ denotes the divisor function): $\displaystyle\sum_{k \leq x}d(k)=xlogx+(2C-1)x+O(\sqrt{x})$ where $C=\displaystyle \lim_{n \to \infty}(1+\cfrac{1}{2}+\cfrac{1}{3}+\dots+\cfrac{1}{n}-logn)$.
Now, we say that $f(x)$ is asymptotic to $g(x)$ if $\displaystyle\lim_{x \to \infty}\cfrac{f(x)}{g(x)}=1$ and write $f(x)$~$g(x)$.
So, Apostol says that $\displaystyle\sum_{k \leq x}d(k)$~$xlogx$.
However, can we also say that $\displaystyle\sum_{k \leq x}d(k)$~$(2C-1)x$ for example?