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I have reached the following inequality while solving a physics problem and was wondering if this is true.

Let $d\geq 2$ be an integer, and let $0

Any other method to solve this? Maybe it is not true?

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The function $f(x)=x^{d/2}$ is convex. Now you can apply Jensen's inequality.

$$\frac{f(x-a)+f(x+a)}2\ge f\left(\frac{(x-a)+(x+a)}2\right)$$

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    nice1 man, +1 for sure.2017-01-14
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    @A.Molendijk "man" is pretty presumptuous.2017-01-14
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    I'm a man, after all, so no problem :)2017-01-14