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Currently, I am enrolled in logic as undergraduate student. For assignment, the lecturer gave us the assignment to convert the problem in CNF. And, there were two questions:

  1. $$(P\:=>\:Q)\:=>\:R$$
  2. $$((\:P\:=>\:Q)\:=>\:R)$$

So, are there any difference between these two in form.i.e steps?

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    Note, however, that there _is_ a difference between $(P\Rightarrow Q)\Rightarrow R$ and $P\Rightarrow (Q\Rightarrow R)$.2017-01-14

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There is no practical difference. It's just that sometimes we write $P\rightarrow Q$ as $(P\rightarrow Q)$, and $P \land Q$ as $(P \land Q)$ ( I.e. add parentheses around any complex formula) to make the recursive definition of the synatactial formation of formulas a little easier on ourselves. But they really mean the exact same thing, so you would get the same CNF ... though I suppose for the first one you could decidee to not use parentheses around the whole CNF expression, an do use parentheses around the whole CNF expression for the second one, just to be consistent with the prompts.

It's really strange that your instructor would make such an explicit difference though ... Are you sure those two are the ones your instructor asked you to do? Could you have copied then wrong? And even if these were really the ones that were given, maybe your instructor meant something else but made a typo? Maybe your instructor meant $(P \Rightarrow (Q \Rightarrow R))$ and $((P \Rightarrow Q) \Rightarrow R)$?