Let $(A_\alpha)_{\alpha \in \Omega}$ be a family of abelian groups, $K$ an abelian group, and $(f_\alpha:A_\alpha\rightarrow K)_{\alpha\in \Omega}$ a family of group morphism.
We define, for each $\alpha \in \Omega$, $i_{\alpha} : A_\alpha \rightarrow \bigoplus_{\gamma\in \Omega}A_\gamma$ by $i_\alpha(a) = (b_\gamma)_{\gamma \in \Omega}$, $b_\alpha = a$, $b_\gamma = 0$ otherwise. Then, there exists a unique morphism $f : \bigoplus_{\alpha\in \Omega}A_\alpha \rightarrow K$ such that $\forall \alpha \in \Omega$, $f\circ i_\alpha=f_\alpha$.
I understand how to prove this statement. However, what I don't understand is why/how this property determines uniquely (up to an isomorphism) $\bigoplus_{\alpha\in \Omega}A_\alpha$.
What do I have to suppose in order to prove that ? I mean, to prove unicity of something, you have to say there exists something with the same property and show they're the same (isomorphic in that case), but I don't seem to understand how the property here is general. It seems to be linked so much to $\bigoplus_{\alpha\in \Omega}A_\alpha$ itself that I don't know what another group $G$ would have to satisfy in order to prove unicity (isomorphism).