let $f$ be a continuous function defined in $\mathbb{R}$.
If
$$ \lim_{x\rightarrow + \infty} f(x) = l > 0 $$
can I say that there's an $\tilde{x} \in \mathbb{R}$ such that $f(\tilde{x}) > 0$? My guess is yes, because by the definition of limit
$$ \forall \epsilon>0 \exists x_0 : \forall x > x_0 \; |f(x) - l|<\epsilon $$ specifically $$ \forall \epsilon>0 \exists x_0 : \forall x > x_0 \; -\epsilon < f(x) - l <\epsilon $$
For $\epsilon = l$ I specifically have
$$ \exists x_0 : \forall x > x_0 -l < f(x) - l \Rightarrow \exists x_0 : \forall x > x_0 \; f(x) > 0 $$
Which means I can pick an $\tilde{x} > 0$ such that $f(\tilde{x}) > 0$.
Two further questions If this is true I assume that if
$$ \lim_{x\rightarrow - \infty} f(x) = l < 0 $$
I can say that there's an $\tilde{x} \in \mathbb{R}$ such that $f(\tilde{x}) < 0$, is that right?
Combining both
\begin{equation} \begin{array}{l} \lim_{x\rightarrow - \infty} f(x) = l_{-} < 0 \\ \lim_{x\rightarrow + \infty} f(x) = l_{+} > 0 \end{array} \end{equation}
I can then say there's an interval $A = [x_{-},x_{+}]$ such that for some $\tilde{x} \in A$ we have $f(\tilde{x}) = 0$.
Is that right?