Consider: $\int \frac{\sin(n+\frac{1}{2})x}{\sin(\frac{x}{2})} = x + \sum_{k=-n}^{n}\frac{2}{k} \sin(kx)$
from what we do see that $\int_{-\pi}^{\pi}\frac{\sin(n+\frac{1}{2})x}{\sin(\frac{x}{2})} dx = 2\pi$ for all $n$
now $\int_{-\pi}^{\pi}|\frac{\sin(n+\frac{1}{2})x}{\sin(\frac{x}{2})}| dx=I_n$(1) does not converge(I mean it holds $\lim_{n\to \infty} I_n = +\infty$) while it shall be $\int_{-\pi}^{\pi}|\frac{\sin(n+\frac{1}{2})x}{\sin(\frac{x}{2})}| dx = 2\int_{0}^{\pi} \frac{\sin(n+\frac{1}{2})x}{\sin(\frac{x}{2})}dx$(and so, this is $2\pi$), which converges.
I need two things: what I did wrong and why this integral(1) diverges? Who does not believe that (1) does not converge, take wolframalpha and compute with 3,5,7,.... and you will see it grows with n.