I am currently a teaching assistant in a course of mathematics for economists (I am an economics student myself, at the beginning of my own math studies) and found that many of the students had problems fully understanding logical implications. Specifically, there were problems with the following question:
Assume that the statement $P \Rightarrow Q$ is true. Which of the following statements are true (or false). Give examples.
(a) $Q \Rightarrow P$ (b) $\lnot Q \Rightarrow P$ (c) $\lnot Q \Rightarrow \lnot P$ (d) $\lnot P \Rightarrow \lnot Q$
Now obviously, the only thing we can say just by looking at the truth value of $P \Rightarrow Q$ is that the statement (c) is always true. For the other ones, we do not know whether they are true or not. To me this is clear just by looking at the truth table, but some of the students misinterpreted this and claimed that (b) is definitely false, if $P \Rightarrow Q$ is true, as they tried to use 'real-world examples', such as "If it rains ($P$), then the street is wet ($Q$).
I tried to give them a mathmatical example, to make things less ambiguous, so I told them to think about the following example
$P$: $x,k \in \mathbb{N},\space x= 4k \space$ (i.e. $x$ is a multiple of 4)
$Q$: $x,n \in \mathbb{N}, \space x= 2n \space$ (i.e. $x$ is even)
Now, obviously, $P \Rightarrow Q$ is true, if either 1) both $P$ and $Q$ are true, 2) $P$ is false and $Q$ is true, or if both $P$ and $Q$ are false. Now the statement $\lnot Q \Rightarrow P\space$ is then true in the cases 1) and 2), but not in case 3) (as $\lnot Q$ is true and $P$ is false, which makes the implication false). Using my example, this would be the same as making the conclusions 1) "If $x$ is not not even (i.e. even), then $x$ is a multiple of 4" ($\lnot Q \Rightarrow P\space$ is true), 2) "If $x$ is not not even (i.e. even), then $x$ is not a multiple of 4" ($\lnot Q \Rightarrow P\space$ is true) and 3) "If $x$ is not even, then $x$ is not a multiple of 4" ($\lnot Q \Rightarrow P\space$ is false).
Now I had thought that I had understood logics, but especially the last one puzzles me a bit. In the cases 1) and 2) it makes sense that our conclusion might be both false or true. But the last bit, which makes the statement $\lnot Q \Rightarrow P\space$ different from $P \Rightarrow Q$ in the truth table is false. Is it because of that apparent contradiction, that the truth value of $\lnot Q \Rightarrow P\space$ cannot be inferred by looking at the truth value of the implication? Or is my example flawed?
I hope someone can give me a more intuitive explanation. As I said, it's one of these things that I know must work like that, but finding and making sense of this on my one apparently made me realize that I am still lacking true understanding of this fact.
Thank you in advance.