Let $p$ be natural prime number. For $m \in \mathbb{Z}$, let $\overline{m}$ denote the remainder of $m/p$. For $\mathbb{Z}_p$ = $\{x\in \mathbb{Z}; x \geq0$ and $x
$(+):$ $m(+)n=\overline{m+n}$
Let $f:\mathbb{Z} \rightarrow \mathbb{Z}_P$ such that $f(n)=\overline{n}$.
Prove that $f(m+n)=f(m)(+)f(n)$.
My attempt:
Given $m,n \in \mathbb{Z}$, write $m=ap+\overline{m}$ and $n=bp+\overline{n}$. Therefore, it follows that $m+n=p(a+b)+\overline{m}+\overline{n}$. In particular, $\overline{m}+\overline{n} = m+n-p(a+b)$.
So, $f(m+n)=\overline{m+n} = \overline{p(a+b)+\overline{m}+\overline{n}} = \overline{m}+\overline{n}= m+n-p(a+b)$.
And $f(m)(+)f(n)=\overline{m}(+)\overline{n}=\overline {\overline{m}+\overline{n}} = \overline{m+n-p(a+b)}=m+n$.
I can't see how this can be equal. For me it is only true that $f(m+n)=f(m)+f(n)$.