In geometric topology, one often encounters the following argument(or alike):
If two (singular) 1-cycles $a_1,a_2:\Delta \to X$ are homologous, then there exists a bordism(singular surface) $F$ that joins $a_1$ and $a_2$. Thus, if one wants to prove that a homomorphism from the singular chain complex to an abelian group can quotient out to give an induced homomorphism from the first homology group, it suffices to show the homomorphism is invariant under any cobordism.
(My apology if there's a mistake in the statement above, but I think the spirit of the argument is more or less contained.)
E.g. When defining a Seifert form associated to the Seifert surface $\Sigma_g$ as a bilinear form on the 1st homology group of $\Sigma_g$, in lemma 2.6 in the following paper that introduces an isomorphism from $H_1(\mathrm{Sym}^g\Sigma_g)$ to $H_1(\Sigma_g)$, or many other places that I can't refer just now.
As I haven't seen (the proof of) the above argument written explicitly, it might not hold as itself given above, but can anyone suggest a reference or give a proof of this argument? Explicitly, I want to know one of the explicit form of the above argument, made explicit in the range of possible space $X$.(I guess $X$ being manifold should work?)
And also I guess this argument has something to do with the canonical map $\Omega_1^{or}(X)\to H_1(X)$, where $\Omega_1^{ori}(X)$ is the oriented bordism group of $X$. But I'm not familiar with the language in cobordism theory, so I appreciate if this relation can be explained.