The proof to
$\Gamma \models \phi [\nu /\kappa ] \: \Rightarrow \: \Gamma \models \left ( \forall \nu \right )\phi$
(Provided that no sentences in $\Gamma\:$ have occurrences of $\kappa$ and also that $\kappa$ does not occur in $\phi$).
Goes as follows:
Suppose that $\:\Gamma \models \phi [\nu /\kappa ]$. For RAA, assume that it is not the case that $\:\Gamma \models \left ( \forall \nu \right )\phi$. Then there is some interpretation $\:\mathbf{I}$ that satisfies $\:\Gamma$ but not $\:\left ( \forall \nu \right )\phi$. Since $\kappa$ does not occur in $\phi$, there is some variant $\textbf{I}_{\kappa}$ of $\:\mathbf{I}\:$ with respect to $\kappa$ such that $\phi [\nu /\kappa ]$ is false under $\textbf{I}_{\kappa}$. But also $\kappa$ does not occur in any sentence of $\:\Gamma$. Since the only difference between $\:\mathbf{I}$ and $\textbf{I}_{\kappa}$ is what they assign to $\kappa$, and since $\:\mathbf{I}\:$ satisfies $\:\Gamma$, therefore $\textbf{I}_{\kappa}$ satisfies $\:\Gamma$. Thus, $\textbf{I}_{\kappa}$ satisfies $\:\Gamma$ but not $\phi [\nu /\kappa ]$, which contradicts the hypothesis that $\Gamma \models \phi [\nu /\kappa ]$. $\mathbf{Q.E.D.}$
My question is,
Why does it not matter what $\kappa$ is chosen for $\:\Gamma$? Specifically, I am not understanding the significance of the sentence,
Since the only difference between $\:\mathbf{I}$ and $\textbf{I}_{\kappa}$ is what they assign to $\kappa$, and since $\:\mathbf{I}\:$ satisfies $\:\Gamma$, therefore $\textbf{I}_{\kappa}$ satisfies $\:\Gamma$.
Does $\:\mathbf{I}\:$ satisfying $\:\Gamma$ implicitly mean that any arbitrary constant that does not occur in $\Gamma$ satisfies all substitution instances inside $\Gamma$? Nothing suggests that $\Gamma$ is satisfied for all interpretations so why doesn't any $\kappa$ affect it?